85+ Contoh Soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2025 & Jawabannya

Masih menanti pengumuman hasil Tes Online Tahap 1 (TKD, TWK, dan Tes AKHLAK) Rekrutmen Bersama BUMN 2025? 

Jangan hanya menunggu tanpa persiapan! Jika kamu lolos, tahap selanjutnya akan langsung dimulai pada minggu ketiga Mei, yaitu Tes Online Tahap 2 yang mencakup tes bahasa inggris (english test) dan learning agility.

Tes bahasa Inggris BUMN menjadi salah satu penentu penting kelulusan ke tahap akhir. Sebab itu, penting untuk mulai berlatih dari sekarang.

Yuk, simak penjelasan lengkap seputar jumlah soal, durasi, passing grade, materi yang diujikan, hingga contoh soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2025 berikut ini!

Apa Itu Tes Bahasa Inggris dalam Rekrutmen Bersama BUMN 2025? 

Tes bahasa Inggris adalah salah satu bagian dari Tes Online Tahap 2 dalam proses seleksi Rekrutmen Bersama BUMN (RBB) 2025, yang dilaksanakan bersamaan dengan tes learning agility. 

Tes ini bertujuan untuk mengukur kemampuan peserta dalam memahami dan menggunakan bahasa Inggris; kemampuan yang penting untuk berkomunikasi di lingkungan kerja BUMN yang profesional dan sering melibatkan kerja sama internasional.

Materi tes ini mirip dengan tes TOEFL, mencakup pemahaman struktur kalimat, pengenalan kesalahan tata bahasa, dan kemampuan memahami bacaan berbahasa Inggris.

Tes bahasa Inggris dijadwalkan berlangsung pada minggu ketiga Mei 2025, yakni sekitar tanggal 21–27 Mei 2025.

Jadwal Lengkap Rekrutmen Bersama BUMN 2025

Agar kamu bisa lebih siap menghadapi setiap tahapannya, berikut rangkaian lengkap jadwal Rekrutmen Bersama BUMN (RBB) 2025 dari awal hingga pengumuman final:

• Registrasi Kandidat: 7–19 Maret 2025
• Job Apply: 10–19 Maret 2025
• Pengumuman Administrasi: Minggu ke-2 April 2025

Tahap 1: Tes TKD, AKHLAK, TWK

• Cek Perangkat (Compatibility Device Check): 14–17 April 2025
• Tes TKD (Tes Kemampuan Dasar), AKHLAK, dan Wawasan Kebangsaan: 19–28 April 2025
• Pengumuman Hasil Tes Tahap 1: Minggu ke-2 Mei 2025 (Dalam Proses!)

Tahap 2: Tes Bahasa Inggris dan Learning Agility

• Cek Perangkat: Minggu ke-2 Mei 2025
• Pelaksanaan Tes: Minggu ke-3 Mei 2025 (21–27 Mei 2025)
• Pengumuman Hasil Tes Tahap 2: Minggu ke-2 Juni 2025

Tahap 3: Tes Kemampuan Bidang (oleh masing-masing BUMN)

• Pengumuman Final: Minggu ke-1 Juli 2025

Jumlah Soal, Durasi, dan Passing Grade Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN

Tes bahasa Inggris dalam Rekrutmen Bersama BUMN 2025 bersifat online dan dirancang menyerupai TOEFL ITP. 

Tes ini bertujuan menilai kemampuan peserta dalam memahami struktur bahasa Inggris, mengenali kesalahan, dan membaca teks berbahasa Inggris secara efektif.

Berikut rincian lengkap jumlah soal, durasi, dan passing grade-nya, dilansir dari Kontan:

Berapa soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN? Berapa menit durasinya?

Tes bahasa Inggris BUMN terdiri dari 140 soal yang harus kamu kerjakan dalam waktu 115 menit. 

Kemudian, pembobotan total nilai Tes Online Tahap 1 & 2 adalah sebagai berikut: 

Penilaian Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN

Berdasarkan buku Panduan Resmi Tes BUMN CAT/PBT yang dilansir dari Kumparan, berikut adalah materi penilaian yang perlu dipelajari oleh peserta untuk mempersiapkan diri dan lolos Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2025:

1. Structure and Written Expression

Pada bagian ini, peserta akan diuji kemampuan mereka dalam memahami dasar-dasar tata bahasa Inggris, termasuk:

• Pemahaman mengenai urutan informasi yang disajikan secara kronologis.
• Penguasaan tata bahasa dasar, seperti grammar, termasuk penggunaan tenses dan bentuk kata kerja (verb forms).
• Kemampuan untuk memahami dan membangun struktur kalimat dengan benar.
• Penggunaan preposisi (kata depan) dan konjungsi (kata sambung) secara tepat dalam kalimat.

2. Error Recognition

Selanjutnya, kamu akan menemui error recognition. 

Tes ini akan menguji kemampuan peserta dalam mengidentifikasi kesalahan dalam struktur kalimat bahasa Inggris. 

Peserta harus mampu mendeteksi berbagai jenis kesalahan, seperti:

• Kesalahan tata bahasa (grammar errors)
• Kesalahan ejaan (spelling errors)
• Kesalahan struktur kalimat (sentence structure errors)
• Pemilihan kata yang tidak tepat (word choice errors)

Tes ini membutuhkan ketelitian dan pemahaman yang mendalam terhadap aturan bahasa Inggris.

3. Reading Comprehension

Terakhir, materi reading comprehension mengukur kemampuan peserta dalam memahami teks yang berkaitan dengan berbagai topik, termasuk sosial, sejarah, dan sains. 

Tes ini mencakup:

• Kemampuan untuk memahami ide pokok dan rincian informasi dalam bacaan.
• Kemampuan untuk menganalisis isi bacaan dengan tepat.
• Kemampuan untuk menarik kesimpulan berdasarkan informasi yang diberikan dalam teks.
• Kemampuan untuk menjawab pertanyaan yang diajukan berdasarkan bacaan yang telah dibaca.

Baca Juga: Perusahaan BUMN Apa Saja? Ini 65 Daftar & Jenis Usahanya di 2025 

Contoh Soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 

Untuk mempersiapkan diri menghadapi tes bahasa Inggris BUMN, penting berlatih dengan contoh soal yang sering muncul dalam tes ini. 

Berikut beberapa contoh soal yang dapat membantu kamu memahami tipe-tipe pertanyaan yang akan dihadapi dan meningkatkan peluang lolos seleksi. Yuk, simak soal-soalnya!

Structure and Written Expression

1. He was so tired that he _____ asleep during the movie.
A. Falls
B. Falling
C. Fell
D. Fall
E. Fallen

Jawaban: C

2. The teacher asked the students _____ quietly during the exam.
A. To work
B. Working
C. Work
D. Works
E. Worked

Jawaban: A

3. What does the underlined word mean?

Sentence: The company aims to foster innovation in its workforce.

A. Encourage
B. Hinder
C. Ignore
D. Abandon
E. Effect

Jawaban: A

4. They ______ in the library when I last saw them.

A. Were studying
B. Studying
C. Studied
D. Are studying
E. Lot

Jawaban: A

5. _____ of the students passed the final exam.

A. Many
B. Some
C. Few
D. Much
E. Lot

Jawaban: A

6. Could you please hand me _____ book on the table?
A. The
B. An
C. A
D. That
E. This

Jawaban: A

7. Choose the correct spelling.

A. Proffessional
B. Profesional
C. Professional
D. Professhional
E. Professionale

Jawaban: C

8. She is not _____ to attend the meeting.

A. Can
B. Able
C. Can't
D. Ability
E. Capable

Jawaban: B

9. The new employee is _____ to adapt to the company's culture.

A. Hard
B. Easily
C. Quickly
D. Difficult
E. Fast

Jawaban: C

10. The CEO expressed _____ satisfaction with the company's performance.

A. His
B. He
C. Her
D. Their
E. Them

Jawaban: A

11. They _____ their vacation in Bali last year.

A. Spending
B. Spent
C. Spend
D. Spended
E. Will spend

Jawaban: B

12. He ______ a letter when I called him.

A. Writes
B. Writing
C. Write
D. Was writing
E. Wrote

Jawaban: D

13. She is the person ______ helped me yesterday.

A. Who
B. Whom
C. Which
D. That
E. Whose

Jawaban: A

14. _____ do you usually go to the gym?

A. How
B. What
C. Where
D. When
E. Why

Jawaban: D

15. We ______ to the cinema last night.

A. Go
B. Went
C. Going
D. Have gone
E. Will go

Jawaban: B

16. The manager asked me if I ______ to the meeting.

A. Come
B. Comes
C. Coming
D. Came
E. To come

Jawaban: D

17. This is the most ______ book I’ve ever read.

A. Interesting
B. Interested
C. More interesting
D. Most interesting
E. Interest

Jawaban: A

18. Can you ______ me the salt, please?
A. Pass
B. Passed
C. Passing
D. To pass
E. Passes

Jawaban: A

19. He ______ a new job next month.

A. Start
B. Starting
C. Started
D. Starts
E. Will start

Jawaban: E

20. I ______ to Paris last summer.

A. Travel
B. Have traveled
C. Traveled
D. Will travel
E. Am traveling

Jawaban: C

21. ______ the demands of aerospace, medicine, agriculture, engineers, are creating exotic new metallic substances.

A. Meet
B. To meet
C. They are meeting
D. Being met are

Jawaban: B. To meet

22. Concentrated Solar Power (CSP) technologies, ______ intense heat that can be used to generate electricity through steam turbines, use mirrors or lenses to concentrate sunlight onto a small area.

A. which produces
B. produce
C. producing
D. produced

Jawaban: C. producing

23. James A. Bland, “Carry Me Back to Old Virginny" was adopted as the state song of Virginia in 1940.

A. His writing was
B. He wrote the
C. Written by
D. Was written by

Jawaban: D. Was written by

24. Mary Garden, ______ the early 1900's was considered one of the best singing actresses of her time.

A. a soprano was popular
B. in a popular soprano
C. was a popular soprano
D. a popular soprano in

Jawaban: D. a popular soprano in

25. ______ the logistics industry is its ability to efficiently manage the movement and storage of products, meeting the demands of global supply chains and facilitating international trade.

A. By differentiate
B. Differentiate
C. What differentiates
D. While differentiate

Jawaban: C. What differentiates

26. The use of ______ designed to enhance agricultural productivity, has significantly increased over the past century.

A. agrochemicals substances
B. agrochemicals substantiate
C. agrochemicals, substantiate
D. agrochemicals, substances

Jawaban: D. agrochemicals, substances

27. In the pharmaceutical industry, the manufacture of medications ______ strict regulatory guidelines to guarantee the safety, efficacy, and consistency of every pill, capsule, or injection produced.

A. That demand
B. Demanding
C. Demands
D. Demand

Jawaban: C. Demands

28. The minerals ______ for human health and nutrition, such as calcium and magnesium, are often obtained from dietary sources like fruits, vegetables, nuts, and fortified foods.
A. Essentially
B. Are essential
C. That are essential
D. Essentialness

Jawaban: C. That are essential

29. Telecommunications companies, ______ in the expansion of broadband networks, play a pivotal role in constructing and maintaining the infrastructure that supports media distribution.

A. Investing
B. Inverts
C. Invested
D. Invest

Jawaban: A. Investing

30. The economic significance of forestry cannot be overstated, ______ provides livelihoods for millions of people worldwide through timber production, ecotourism, and other forest-related industries.

A. Where it
B. As it
C. Since
D. Providing

Jawaban: B. As it

31. ______ in the pension fund, whether as an employee or employer, contributes to the effort of securing the fund’s sustainability to the evolving needs of its diverse membership base.

A. Which participate
B. Who participates
C. Whether participating
D. Whoever participates

Jawaban: D. Whoever participates

32. ______ the demands of aerospace, medicine, agriculture, and engineers, are creating exotic new metallic substances.

A. Meet
B. To meet
C. They are meeting
D. Being met are

Jawaban: B. To meet

33. Concentrated Solar Power (CSP) technologies, ______ intense heat that can be used to generate electricity through steam turbines, use mirrors or lenses to concentrate sunlight onto a small area.

A. which produces
B. produce
C. producing
D. produced

Jawaban: C. producing

34. James A. Bland, “Carry Me Back to Old Virginny" was adopted as the state song of Virginia in 1940.

A. His writing was
B. He wrote the
C. Written by
D. Was written by

Jawaban: D. Was written by

35. Mary Garden, ______ the early 1900's was considered one of the best singing actresses of her time.

A. a soprano was popular
B. in a popular soprano
C. was a popular soprano
D. a popular soprano in

Jawaban: D. a popular soprano in

36. ______ the logistics industry is its ability to efficiently manage the movement and storage of products, meeting the demands of global supply chains and facilitating international trade.

A. By differentiate
B. Differentiate
C. What differentiates
D. While differentiate

Jawaban: C. What differentiates

37. The use of ______ designed to enhance agricultural productivity, has significantly increased over the past century.

A. agrochemicals substances
B. agrochemicals substantiate
C. agrochemicals, substantiate
D. agrochemicals, substances

Jawaban: D. agrochemicals, substances

38. In the pharmaceutical industry, the manufacture of medications ______ strict regulatory guidelines to guarantee the safety, efficacy, and consistency of every pill, capsule, or injection produced.

A. That demand
B. Demanding
C. Demands
D. Demand

Jawaban: C. Demands

39. The minerals ______ for human health and nutrition, such as calcium and magnesium, are often obtained from dietary sources like fruits, vegetables, nuts, and fortified foods.

A. Essentially
B. Are essential
C. That are essential
D. Essentialness

Jawaban: C. That are essential

40. Telecommunications companies, ______ in the expansion of broadband networks, play a pivotal role in constructing and maintaining the infrastructure that supports media distribution.

A. Investing
B. Inverts
C. Invested
D. Invest

Jawaban: A. Investing

41. The economic significance of forestry cannot be overstated, ______ provides livelihoods for millions of people worldwide through timber production, ecotourism, and other forest-related industries.

A. Where it
B. As it
C. Since
D. Providing

Jawaban: B. As it

42. ______ in the pension fund, whether as an employee or employer, contributes to the effort of securing the fund’s sustainability to the evolving needs of its diverse membership base.

A. Which participate
B. Who participates
C. Whether participating
D. Whoever participates

Jawaban: D. Whoever participates

Error Recognition

43. On Ellesmere Island in the Arctic one fossil forest consist (A) of a nearly (B) hundred large stumps scattered (C) on an exposed (D) coal bed.
A. consist
B. nearly
C. scattered
D. exposed

Jawaban: A

44. That employ (A) advanced technologies and equipment to maximize resource extraction, the (B) mining industry extracts minerals and coal from (C) the Earth's crust through various (D) methods.
A. That employ
B. the
C. from
D. various

Jawaban: A

45. The steel industry sector, characterized by its (A) resilience, operates (B) globally as a cornerstone of modern infrastructure and economic (C) development, with its perceptibly (D) impact.

A. its
B. operates
C. economic
D. perceptibly

Jawaban: D

46. AI-powered systems may effieciently (A) reproduce the campign with accsess to (B) ... data and provides (C) accurate findings (D).

A. Effieciently
B. Accsess to
C. Provides
D. Findings

Jawaban: C

47. The midnight sun is (A) a phenomenon in which the Sun visible remains (B) in the sky (C) for twenty-four hours or longer (D).

A. is
B. visible remains
C. the sky
D. or longer

Jawaban: B

48. On Ellesmere Island in the Arctic one fossil forest consist (A) of a nearly (B) hundred large stumps scattered (C) on an exposed (D) coal bed.

A. consist
B. nearly
C. scattered
D. exposed

Jawaban: A

49. The three major employers (A) of career physics (B) are academic institutions (C), government laboratories, and private (D) industries.

A. employers
B. physics
C. institutions
D. industries

Jawaban: B

50. Currently (A), the main element of competition, both on (B) national and international level are representing (C) by human resources (D).

A. Currently
B. on
C. are representing
D. human resources

Jawaban: C

51. The hiring (A) manager is interviewing to (B) the job applicants to know (C) their skills (D) and experience.

A. hiring
B. to
C. know
D. experience

Jawaban: B

52. We must (A) think it out (B) again before (C) we make our final decision to take (D) the project.

A. must
B. think it out
C. before
D. to take

Jawaban: D

53. Although he has a strong desire to be a singer (A), Mark's voice sounds horribly (B) to everyone who hears (C) him singing (D).

A. to be
B. horribly
C. hears
D. singing

Jawaban: B

54. Currently (A), the main element of competition, both on (B) national and international level are representing (C) by human resources (D).

A. Currently
B. on
C. are representing
D. human resources

Jawaban: C

55. The chef's new recipe (A) is more healthy (B) than his previous ones, which were known for being (C) delicious but not nutritious (D).

A. new recipe
B. more healthy
C. being
D. nutritious

Jawaban: B

56. Wood (A) from the ash tree becomes extremely flexibly (B) when it (C) is exposed (D) to steam.

A. Wood
B. flexibly
C. is
D. to steam

Jawaban: B

57. The ability to talk (A) is one of the skill (B) that make humans (C) different from the rest of the animal (D) world.

A. to talk
B. skill
C. make
D. animal

Jawaban: B

58. In (A) plane geometry, the sum of the internal (B) angles of any (C) triangle has (D) always equal to 180 degrees.

A. In
B. internal
C. any
D. has

Jawaban: D

59. His expertise in the field (A) has made him (B) one of the most respect (C) professionals in the industry (D).

A. expertise
B. has made
C. respect
D. industry

Jawaban: C

60. The athlete's dedication to training (A) has allowed her (B) to break several records and be recognize (C) worldwide for her achievements (D).

A. dedication
B. allowed
C. recognize
D. achievements

Jawaban: C

61. The outer (A) layer of the heart, called (B) the pericardium, forms (C) a sac in what (D) the heart lies.

A. outer
B. called
C. forms
D. what

Jawaban: D

62. The committee was (A) surprisingly (B) accepting of the new policy, even though it was (C) not clearly explained (D).

A. was
B. accepting
C. even though
D. explained

Jawaban: B

63. Although he has a strong desire to be a singer (A), Mark's voice sounds horribly (B) to everyone who hears (C) him singing (D).

A. to be
B. horribly
C. hears
D. singing

Jawaban: B

Reading Comprehension

We believe the Earth is about 4.6 billion years old. At percent we are forced to look to other bodies in the solar system for hints as to what the early history of the Earth was like. Studies of our moon, Mercury, Mars, and the large satelites of Jupiter and Saturn have provided ample evidence that all these large celestial bodies had formed. This same bombardment must have affected Earth as well. The lunar record indicates that the rate of impacts decreased to its present low level about 4 billion years ago. On Earth, subsequent erosion and crustal motions have obliterated the craters that must have formed during this epoch. 

Scientists estimate the Earth's age by measuring the ratios of various radioactive elements in rocks. The oldest Earth's rocks tested thus far are about 3 1/3 billion years old. But no one knows whether these are oldest rocks on Earth. Tests on rocks form the moon and on meteorites show that these are about 4.6 billion years old. Scientists believe that this is the true age of the solar system and probably the true age of the Earth.

64. In the last sentence on the last paragraph, the word “obliterated” means?

A. Changed
B. Destroyed
C. Eroded
D. Created

Jawaban: B

65. Which of the following processes led to the obliteration of the craters formed by the bombardment of the Earth by celestial bodies?

A. Crustal motions
B. Gravity
C. Solar radiation
D. Volcanic activity

Jawaban: A

66. According to this passage, how do scientists estimate the age of Earth?

A. By studying
B. By measuring the ratios of radioactive elements in rocks
C. By examining fossils
D. By examining volcanic activity

Jawaban: B

67. According to the passage, why are scientists forced to look at other bodies in the solar system to determine the early history of the Earth?

A. Human alteration of the Earth
B. Erosion and crustal motions
C. Solar flares
D. Deforestation

Jawaban: B

68. Bombardment of the Earth at one time by various sized bodies is?

A. Inferred from what happened on other planetary bodies
B. Documented fact
C. Proven by the lunar record
D. Indicated by erosion

Jawaban: A

Hydroelectric power serves as the largest portion of renewable energy in the world. To generate hydroelectric power, the kinetic energy from the falling water is converted through the rotation of turbines. The converted energy, which becomes mechanical energy, then switched into electrical energy. Water in dans is the most accustomed source of the hydropower, in which water is flowed from reservoirs to run the turbines. Not only from the dams, but it can also utilize the natural running of a river or tide. 

Due to its capability of storing large amounts of water in dams, hydropower is more stable than other renewable energy such as wind or solar, which are affected by the seasons and weather. The water storage can cover the water needs by the people. Other things boasted by hydropower is its electricity system flexibility and security. The electricity production of hydropower can be increased and decreased swiftly. Concurrently, It can be stopped and restarted handily tailored to sudden shifts in demand, or to compensate for the change in supply from other electricity sources. 

Besides the advantages, hydropower also has its disadvantages. The most notable is the damage hydropower provokes to the environment and ecosystem. The development of a dam as the requirement of hydropower power plants would lead to the destruction and ecological disconnection. For instance, "the construction of water dams might alter the migration and movement of aquatic animals, deter their reproduction, and in certain extent could lead to extinction of some species. 

While indeed hydropower is less affected by day-to-day weather, the erratic change in the climate is correlated with the uneven precipitation and extreme weather conditions. The fickle water cycle affects power plants and disturbs the power and electricity generation. The soaring investment and the costly spend to cope with the social and environmental burden declines hydropower's popularity in the whole world.

69. What is the meaning of “deter” in line 16?

A. Hinder
B. Incite
C. Push
D. Urge

Jawaban: A

70. “...restarted handily tailored to sudden shifts...”

A. Scattered
B. Sustained
C. Dispersed
D. Adjusted

Jawaban: D

71. Which of the following would be the best title?

A. Earth’s Future Energy: Hydropower
B. Hydropower: The Limitless Energy
C. The Aftereffect of The Clean Energy
D. Hydropower Plant for Better Energy

Jawaban: A

72. It is most likely that the deterioration of hydropower...

A. Safety happens because of the nature destruction
B. Can happen because of more than three reasons
C. Related to the pile of funding it takes to build one
D. Is going to slump because of the rising investment

Jawaban: B

73. Where in the passage does the author discuss the examples of hydropower downside?

A. Concurrently, It can be stopped and restarted handily tailored to sudden shifts in demand, or to compensate for the change in supply from other electricity sources.
B. While indeed hydropower is less affected by day-to-day weather, the erratic change in the climate is correlated with the uneven precipitation and extreme weather conditions.
C. For instance, "the construction of water dams might alter the migration and movement of aquatic animals, deter their reproduction, and in certain extent could lead to extinction of some species.
D. Hydropower is more stable than other renewable energy such as wind or solar, which are affected by the seasons and weather.

Jawaban: C

Engaging in outdoor exercise offers numerous benefits for both physical and mental well-being. One advantage is the exposure to natural sunlight, which helps the body produce vitamin D, necessary for bone health. Additionally, being outdoors provides a change of scenery and fresh air, creating a more enjoyable workout experience. 

Regular outdoor exercise also offers various physical benefits. Activities such as walking, jogging, or cycling in natural environments can help improve cardiovascular health, strengthen muscles, and enhance overall fitness levels. The uneven terrain and varying resistance in outdoor settings engage different muscle groups, leading to a more well-rounded workout. 

Moreover, outdoor exercise has positive effects on mental health. Research suggests that being in nature and green spaces can reduce stress, anxiety, and depression. The calming and rejuvenating effects of nature contribute to improved mood and increased feelings of happiness. Outdoor exercise also provides a break from technology and screens, allowing individuals to disconnect and recharge mentally. 

Incorporating outdoor exercise into one’s routine can have long-lasting benefits for physical and mental well-being. It offers a holistic approach to fitness, combining the advantages of nature with the positive effects of physical activity.

74. What is one advantage of engaging in outdoor exercise?

A. Increased screen time
B. Exposure to natural sunlight
C. Limited access to fresh air
D. Decreased physical fitness

Jawaban: B

75. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned as a form of outdoor exercise in the passage?

A. Walking
B. Jogging
C. Cycling
D. Weightlifting

Jawaban: D

76. How does outdoor exercise benefit cardiovascular health?

A. By increasing screen time
B. By strengthening muscles
C. By improving bone health
D. By reducing stress

Jawaban: B

77. According to the passage, what positive effects does outdoor exercise have on mental health?

A. Increased stress and anxiety
B. Improved mood and happiness
C. Decreased exposure to fresh air
D. Limited access to natural sunlight

Jawaban: B

78. Why is outdoor exercise considered a holistic approach to fitness?

A. It combines physical and mental well-being.
B. It focuses solely on cardiovascular health.
C. It limits exposure to natural sunlight.
D. It excludes activities like walking and jogging.

Jawaban: A

Engaging in outdoor exercise offers numerous benefits for both physical and mental well-being. One advantage is the exposure to natural sunlight, which helps the body produce vitamin D, necessary for bone health. 

Regular outdoor exercise also offers various physical benefits. Activities such as walking, jogging, or cycling in natural environments can help improve cardiovascular health, strengthen muscles, and enhance overall fitness levels. 

The uneven terrain and varying resistance in outdoor settings engage different muscle groups, leading to a more well-rounded workout. Moreover, outdoor exercise has positive effects on mental health. 

Research suggests that being in nature and green spaces can reduce stress, anxiety, and depression. The calming and rejuvenating effects of nature contribute to improved mood and increased feelings of happiness. 

79. What is one advantage of engaging in outdoor exercise?

A. Increased screen time
B. Exposure to natural sunlight
C. Limited access to fresh air
D. Decreased physical fitness

Jawaban: B

80. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned as a form of outdoor exercise in the passage?

A. Walking
B. Jogging
C. Cycling
D. Weightlifting

Jawaban: D

81. How does outdoor exercise benefit cardiovascular health?

A. By increasing screen time
B. By strengthening muscles
C. By improving bone health
D. By reducing stress

Jawaban: B

82. According to the passage, what positive effects does outdoor exercise have on mental health?

A. Increased stress and anxiety
B. Improved mood and happiness
C. Decreased exposure to fresh air
D. Limited access to natural sunlight

Jawaban: B

Glass fibers are extremely strong; for their weight, they are stronger than steel. They are made by forcing molten glass through tiny holes called spinnerets. As many as four hundred spinnerets are placed together, and threads of glass much thinner than human hairs are drawn off at great speed-miles of thread per minute.As they speed along, the threads are coated thinly with a type of glue and twisted into a yarn. The glass fibers are used with plastics to make boats and car bodies. They are also woven into heavy cloth for window draperies and into strong belts for making tires stronger.

A special kind of glass fiber is causing a revolution in communications. A signal of light can be made to travel along the fiber for very long distances. By changing the quality of the light, many messages can be sent at once along one strand of glass. New office buildings are being “wired” with glass fibers as they are built. 

The glass fibers will be used to connect telephones and computers in ways that not long ago were either impossible or too expensive.Glass wool traps air in a thick, light blanket of fibers. This blanket is then put into walls and ceilings to keep warm air in during the winter and cool air in during the summer.To make glass wool, molten glass is fed into a spinning drum with many holes in it. 

As the glass threads stream out of the holes, they are forced downward by a blast of hot air and through a spray of glues. The threads are then further blown about to mix them up as they fall in a thick mat on a moving belt. The glass we see through and drink out of has many, many other uses besides the ones described here.  

83. What was the author’s main purpose in writing the article?

A. To persuade you to investigate the many uses of glass beyond those mentioned in the article
B. To inform you how special kinds of glass are made and used
C. To inform you about the strength of glass fibers
D. To inform you that glue is used to hold strands of glass together

Jawaban: B

84. The word “special” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.

A. Additional
B. Common
C. Distinct
D. Species

Jawaban: C

85. Glass fibers are made by forcing molten glass through ___________.

A. Spinners
B. Spiderets
C. Spinnerets
D. Spinets

Jawaban: C

86. The word “changing” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by the word _________.

A. Bringing
B. Boring
C. Altering
D. Doing

Jawaban: C

87. What are glass fibers woven into cloth for?

A. Cars and boats
B. Glasses
C. Draperies
D. Glue

Jawaban: C

88. The word “fed” in the fourth paragraph means ______.

A. To give food to
B. To minister to
C. To supply
D. To support

Jawaban: C

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